Start of the Indus Valley Civilization
Revisiting the Indus Valley. The Indus Valley civilization is said to have existed from 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE. That's 2,000 years! Now it is said to have ended 1300 BCE with a maximum of 5 million people at its height. The date is 2700 GPC. For comparison this is during the Armana letters when the judges in Israel began. Ironically the population of Israel was about 2 million people at the time of the Exodus. So it was likely also about 5 million when the Indus Valley civilization fell.
The reason I agree with the end date is because of how advanced they were. They could not have existed after the Exodus otherwise they would have been mentioned by Israel, Greece, Iran, anyone. So the date for the fall of the Indus Valley is accurate. It doesn't take much deductive reasoning power. Now the start of the Indus Valley is wayyyyy overly inflated.
Let's briefly discuss how advanced they were. This is the most advanced civilization on planet earth. They were so advanced that they only built 8 public wells at the start of their civilization and never after, factoring in their own population growth.
It takes only a thousand years for 8 people to reach a population of 1 billion at a 2% growth rate. Suggesting the Harappan civilisation existed for 2,000 years would mean so many billions of people. Earth's population reached a billion for the first time in 1804 or 5801 GPC. Inflating the dates of the IVC is an insult to the billion plus people currently living in India today. It's also an insult to the legacy of the world's most advanced civilization.
For the Indus Valley civilization to have even existed half the duration suggested they would have had to practice wide scale human sacrifice like the Aztecs. No such evidence for that exists. In fact no religious institutions existed at all! They lived in a perfectly orderly world free of the chaos and inefficiency modern people face today. It was a perfect society while it lasted.
Assuming the society began with only 8 people at a 2% growth rate it would take 700 years to reach their maximum population of 5 million people. But even this number is inflated given the sophistication of their early civilisation. They must have begun with a population of at least 3,000 people. That reduces the length of their civilization from being 700 years to just 400. That's closer to reality. The Persian Empire in all its glory was only about 200 years old.
This puts the start of Indus Valley Civilization right at the time of the Biblical Joseph's death. This is after the Akkadians and Sumerians and again this is logical because if they existed for 2,000 years you would think there would be evidence of their existence in other cultures. This is twice the duration of the Roman Empire! There is evidence of Rome in every single European country alive today.
Now what happened after they fell? The Assyrians after they fell became the Germanic people. Their culture regressed significantly and the migration to lands east of the Rhine River happened in three waves spanning 600 years! The oldest city in Germany today is Trier which was built by Assyria.
400 years after the fall of the Indus Valley civilization the Scythians began their legacy in Europe. They were also known as the Saka or Shaka in Indian texts. 3,000 years ago they ruled all over Europe along side the Celts for nearly a millennia. The Chinese pushed them into India which opened the door for a Germanic invasion resulting in the Europe we see today.
It gets more fascinating. In India they had kings and queens for nearly 400 years before their arrival. During this time Sanskrit was the liturgical language of the Brahmin or ruling class until..... Until the Shaka. Sanskrit was their vernacular! I couldn't believe it! But that's what I'm reading. That explains the similarities between European languages and Hindi.
So why doesn't the EU adopt Hindi? It's related to Sanskrit which I guess is the oldest language of Europe. Another way of expressing this truth is that Celts and Indo-Iranians were Europe's first inhabitants.
So basically there has been much debate about what language the IVC spoke. It's been recently deciphered as Sanskrit. From the fall of the Indus Valley to the first Indian King is almost exactly 1,000 years - a millennia! This means that my deduction is the most logical one. They more than likely migrated to Europe and became the Scythians. This also explains the Brahui people who are Dravidian in Pakistan. Yes this means the millennia between the fall of the Indus Valley and the first Indian King was a Dravidian millennia. But like a salmon or pigeon everyone returns to the point of origin.
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